Brake bias, how does it work?

  • Thread starter bullet360
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Okay... On tokyo r246 the first corner.... Me and a friend both hit the brakes at the same time... Both Our abs is on 1, but his brake bias is equally at 5 and mine are set at 6, but he slowed down quicker to make the turn easier... How does this work? We both were in Super gt nissan gt-r's, him in the xanavi nismo 08' and me in the calsonic, both weigh the same but we were running stage 2 turbo's and were runnig at 630hp. Neithr of us mess with the LSD. So throw that equation of de-acceleration out

You were in different cars.
Try again with the same cars, 6/6 will stop faster than 5/5.
I'd recommend trying 10/10 vs 0/0 to see the whole difference.
 
It's assumed that 3:1 (in reality 4:2, since the scale starts from 0... but let's ignore that for now) is meant to represent a 75%-25% bias with a total braking power of 4 (abstract scale); 5:2 would be a 71.4%-28.6% bias with a total braking power of 7, and so on.
I think we should just take the strength numbers at face value and not assume they are anything real. For example, what is the equivalent of 3/4; is it 6/8 (ie based on ratios) or 7/8 (ie based on difference)? I think we'll never know and clinging to a theory like this can actually hold you back. Try to just think of the brake strengths as arbitrary numbers and tune the ratio by feel alone.

I disagree with the bold part.
You can tune a cars brakes running ABS to over-steer, under-steer, or be neutral all through braking.
You can make them spin like a top with ABS if you want, or dive straight into a wall.
Thanks heaps for calling me up on that! I went and checked this, and you're right. Even with ABS, the same characteristics of changing the brake bias are present. Much, much more subtle compared with no ABS, but yeah I agree with you that they're there.👍
 

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