No that's something that you are infering.
I've never implied it once, in fact I've been quite clear in pointing out that's not the case.
No, I'm saying the common statement (which isn't yours, you're repeating it, and no that isn't a jab) "gears multiply torque" leads most people to believe that "torque" (the single stroke) is more important for acceleration than torque X speed.(horsepower)
Good job were talking about ICE's then.
You could do it with an ICE.
Torque is not a measure of speed, speed is not a factor in the value of torque.
Torque can be delivered at differing speeds and that is a part of gearing, but the two are not the same value or the same measure.
The si value of torque is nM, with kgm and ftlb also being commonly used, no part of that value is time or speed based.
Nor is speed or time a value in the formula to derive torque, which is
T = r x F
t = ||r||F||sin o
where
T is the torque vector and T is the magnitude of the torque,
r is the position vector
F is the force vector,
o is the angle between the force vector and the lever arm vector.
None of which are time or speed based.
I understand that, I am not arguing it.
What I am saying, is that cars are driven by torque X speed, and not torque alone. When multiplying torque divides speed, in the case of ICE's, it cancels itself out.
I know quite a few people that truly believe, and cannot be convinced otherwise, that you actually have more total driving force at the wheels in lower gears, because of this saying.
They also believe that you shift around your peak torque for maximum acceleration, because of this saying.
I don't know what I said specifically, but I like you Scaff, I really do. You're smart and I respect your intelligence. Don't let my attitude make you think otherwise, I'm just an ass sometimes.
No its not.
Gearing is a force multiplier, that is a fact.
To overcome the rolling resistance of a tyre sufficient force needs to be applied to it, how quickly that force is delivered is not the issue, its that sufficient force is delivered to overcome the rolling resistance, particularly from a standstill, with requires a singnificant degree more force than to keep a tyre rolling.
A rolling tyre on a 1,400 kilo car would need around 100N per tyre of force to applied just to keep it moving (so 400 for the entire car - roughly 100lbs of force), however if its stationary that is going to increase by at least 200 to 400% per tyre depending on the slip percentage the tyre generates.
A 44,000 kilo truck with six axles would have a total of 12 tyres and require at least 4,400N per tyre, so 52,800N just to keep moving, which is around 13,200 lbs of force.
If torque was effectively unchanged because its being delivered more slowly you would struggle to get even a light unladen car moving, let alone a fully loaded HGV.
Gearing multiples force, it also delivers it more slowly, but they do not cancel each other out to leave the force unchanged because they are two different measures.
Unless you're saying that a vehicle with a 1-1 ratio that reaches 30mph would be slower than the same vehicle, using a 4-1 gear to reach 30mph, we're not disagreeing.
They'll both be at the same rpm, the entire time, and they'll both make the same amount of driving force at the wheels. One will do it by multiplying torque and dividing speed, the other will do it with the engine's exact torque and speed.
Torque and power - still not the same.
You see the only person conflating these repeatedly is you.
Have you not read a single one of the totally incorrect posts in this thread?
I would argue that quite a substantial amount of people conflate the two, particularly because of blanket statements like "gears multiply torque". (don't forget "torque wins races" and "torque is how far you move the wall" and "torque is what you can tow")
And if we get really picky, some gears keep torque exact, and yet more actually
decrease torque.
Gears don't multiply power, they multiple force, because power and force are still not the same thing.
They multiply force, by dividing speed.
Driving force is comprised of both.
How can you not see that it's leaving half the equation out?
No its really not semantics.
Power is not force. They are related but not the same thing.
But power is what moves the vehicle down the road. The engine already has speed at idle. Even with a 500rpm idle and 5-1 gears, that torque is being multiplied with speed by more than 1.5x per second.
Gearing is a force multiplier, gearing also changes how quickly force is applied, but they do not cancel each other out to result in the same level of force as was input, as they are two different measures. were they not then the SI and way in which we calculate force would have a speed or time element, it doesn't.
If what you are claiming were true gears would not work, levels would not work, pulleys would not work.
I'm saying that 300 x 100 equals the same as 100 x 300.
If changing 300 to 100 requires 100 to change to 300, there is no difference.(at least in the case of power applied from an engine)
Likewise, an engine making 300lb of torque and 300hp, isn't more powerful than an engine making 200lb and 300hp. When the engine is at the same power level, the car accelerates the same.
I understand that torque and power are not the same, but it equals the same power, and power is what drives the vehicle.
It doesn't make the engine have more driving force, and that's how it's generally perceived, even on the internet.
@CSLACR I think you're confusing ft lb for lb ft.
The foot-pound is a unit of work/energy while the pound-foot is a measure of torque.
Not really, I get those things backwards too much to bother, kind of like toe in and out. I probably have a few posts where I used both, for absolutely no reason.