Money is a finite resource so if the top 1% is getting richer, someone else is getting poorer.
Please demonstrate this.
Physical currency
may be finite (although at the rate it's printed, not meaningfully so) but wealth, or the concept of money, absolutely is not. There exist a
myriad of examples of how this is true. I believe
@Danoff has used some before in other threads as well.
If you can prove that wealth is finite, I would be very interested to see how. Otherwise, it really undermines the validity of your argument.
The idea that we should all live in a bubble and that our neighbours have nothing to do with us and us with them is kinda silly IMO.
When phrased like this, it's a borderline truism, but that's not really the argument. Of course actions your neighbors take can affect you. The question here is how does your neighbor having say, a Ferrari while you have to take the bus actively affect your life?
You might be jealous sure, but how does her having a Ferrari instead of a Honda change your situation?
...But if we see our neighbour's new 500 mill. yacht, and we know he's probably not paying taxes,
Citation Needed
It's impossible for everyone to be rich or live a good life if the money is not fairly distributed. Where would the poorest get money from to live a decent (not even a good) life? Not from trees for sure.
I don't really know where to start with this.
First, what is 'fairly distributed' in your estimation? How much should someone be allowed to make before the rest is taken away and 'fairly distributed' to others? How poor would you need to be to receive some of that stolen money? At what point do you stop receiving that money?
Second, how do you think someone becomes rich? Not from trees for sure.
Third, yes, maybe it is impossible for everyone to be rich. Why is the answer to that to punish those who are? What have they done wrong that justifies taking away their property and negatively impacting their quality of life? How is that acceptable?
I think income inequality is a problem and the idea that people who don't have money just have the money their deserve or that having nothing is the equivalent to their "value" sounds odd to me.
Do you understand the idea of
utility? It is very much true that people in different professions have differing levels of utility, and our current structure grants more monetary value to higher utility individuals and professions. Why is that wrong?
You even hit it yourself later on:
If someone works in a factory and his neighbour is a Doctor, of course there's a difference in their income.
But then fail to follow through:
But if the doctor's neighbour gets 50, 100 or 1000 more than him something is wrong. What job is it worth that much more than a Doctor's job?
The way we have structured our society, doctors do not make the most money. In a sense of utility as human welfare, possibly medicine is the highest utility profession, but that isn't the incentive structure we have decided as a society to set up. Our value for human welfare is below our value for other things, so therefore the reimbursement for medical professionals is not the highest of any job.
Now, it may be fair to say that we should restructure to place a higher value on human welfare, but that's a different argument, and one that in no way involves income or inequality. That's an argument about the basic structures of the global society we have collectively formed. Using income inequality as a proxy argument for that agenda is counterproductive and a waste of everyone's time.
I suspect though that the big problem you see with things is not that doctors are not the highest paid working professionals. You've said as much yourself, and this was merely a convenient example for you to illustrate your bigger problem of 'income inequality' as a whole.
Especially when we know that the people who have more money are often "above" the law and can do pretty much everything to avoid taxation - taxes are for the poor and middle class.
Citation Needed
The Panama Papers is the most recent case of a widespread practice of the top 1% (at least) that in/directly impacts the lives of their "neighbours".
There's a little bit of a causality loop here that I don't really want to get in to, but I want to make sure it's something you have considered.
Yes, avoiding taxation is illegal. Possibly avoiding taxation results in fewer social programs being fully funded. Possibly fewer social programs being fully funded will meaningfully affect a non-zero number of people.
But:
If that individual had paid all tax, but therefore had employed fewer people because of having lower profit margins that reduce capital and anger investors, it would also meaningfully affect a non-zero number of people.
Solve for
x where
x is minimum number of people who's lives are meaningfully affected by this situation. Show your work.
This not to mention people who just inherited billions/millions without doing anything to earn it.
And?
How much of
my property should I be allowed to give to a person or persons of my choice? Who has any right to step in and say that I can't give
my own things to whomever I please? What makes that more correct?
This is another reason why the rich are getting richer and the poor poorer. Because ones accumulate from genetations to generations and others don't.
How does the increase in total wealth of family A by savvy investing and multi-generational fund management actively impoverish family B?
Also, what is preventing family B from doing similarly? Even a tiny amount of seed money managed correctly can, over several generations, grow to a sizable amount, which could then be used to seed bigger and more profitable investments. Rinse, repeat. Sure, family A might get there quicker or end up higher, but again: How does this actively affect family B?