SuperCobraJet
(Banned)
- 2,472
- Virginia USA
- SuperCobraJet1
So, which parts of the Old Testament does Jesus say you must ignore and which parts does Jesus say you must adhere to?
He doesn't say you must ignore it. You no longer "have to observe" the Jewish feasts and ritualistic observances. Or make sacrifice to atone for sin, if you are in him. However it is "faith" based.
Let me ask you this one question: Did you receive the [Holy] Spirit as the result of obeying the Law and doing its works, or was it by hearing [the message of the Gospel] and believing [it]? [Was it from observing a law of rituals or from a message of faith?]Galatians 3:1-3
But the man who has doubts (misgivings, an uneasy conscience) about eating, and then eats [perhaps because of you], stands condemned [before God], because he is not true to his convictions and he does not act from faith. For whatever does not originate and proceed from faith is sin [whatever is done without a conviction of its approval by God is sinful].
Romans 14:22-23
So, within which part of the New Testament does Jesus say homosexual sex is immoral and a sin?
For this reason God gave them over and abandoned them to vile affections and degrading passions. For their women exchanged their natural function for an unnatural and abnormal one,
And the men also turned from natural relations with women and were set ablaze (burning out, consumed) with lust for one another--men committing shameful acts with men and suffering in their own bodies and personalities the inevitable consequences and penalty of their wrong-doing and going astray, which was [their] fitting retribution.
Romans 1:26-28
A further question naturally follows from the concept that Jesus swept away the OT rules (except the ones you think he didn't). If one set of rules was needed for people a thousand years before he was born and then another set of rules was needed at that point which required wholesale eradication of the previous rules, what was so different about those people that they needed different rules - and what exactly do we have in common with the people 2,000 years ago that we still need to be governed by the second set of rules?
Now if perfection (a perfect fellowship between God and the worshiper) had been attainable by the Levitical priesthood--for under it the people were given the Law--why was it further necessary that there should arise another and different kind of Priest, one after the order of Melchizedek, rather than one appointed after the order and rank of Aaron?
Hebrews 7:10-12
Hebrews 7: 18So a previous physical regulation and command is cancelled because of its weakness and ineffectiveness and uselessness--
19For the Law never made anything perfect--but instead a better hope is introduced through which we [now] come close to God.
20And it was not without the taking of an oath [that Christ was made Priest],
21For those who formerly became priests received their office without its being confirmed by the taking of an oath by God, but this One was designated and addressed and saluted with an oath, The Lord has sworn and will not regret it or change His mind, You are a Priest forever according to the order of Melchizedek.(C)
22In keeping with [the oath's greater strength and force], Jesus has become the Guarantee of a better (stronger) agreement [a more excellent and more advantageous covenant].
23[Again, the former successive line of priests] was made up of many, because they were each prevented by death from continuing [perpetually in office];
24But He holds His priesthood unchangeably, because He lives on forever.
25Therefore He is able also to save to the uttermost (completely, perfectly, finally, and for all time and eternity) those who come to God through Him, since He is always living to make petition to God and intercede with Him and intervene for them.
26[Here is] the High Priest [perfectly adapted] to our needs, as was fitting--holy, blameless, unstained by sin, separated from sinners, and exalted higher than the heavens.
27He has no day by day necessity, as [do each of these other] high priests, to offer sacrifice first of all for his own [personal] sins and then for those of the people, because He [met all the requirements] once for all when He brought Himself [as a sacrifice] which He offered up.
28For the Law sets up men in their weakness [frail, sinful, dying human beings] as high priests, but the word of [God's] oath, which [was spoken later] after the institution of the Law, [chooses and appoints as priest One Whose appointment is complete and permanent], a Son Who has been made perfect forever.(D)
Last edited: