Terrible would be to posit that fatherhood is to blame, and to justify the position using a single, undeniable correlation, disregarding other factors.
The answer to the question I asked is "No", by the way. I'm compelled to point that out as you declined to answer it.
Its a perfectly good example that you seem to be the only one having a problem with.
100% of fathers are fathers, but that doesn't mean that they are going to kill their kids, or that fatherhood is a causal factor in it!
100% of Muslims are Muslims, but that doesn't mean they are going to kill people, or that their religion is a causal factor in it
It's scientifically illiterate. If you showed me that 100% of prolicide was by fathers
vs mothers then I'd expect to see further research in the argument that aspects of fatherhood make men more likely to kill their offspring than women. As it is, it is in fact women who are most likely to kill their offspring (58% to 42%), and research has been done that suggests five main reasons including: "altruistic," "fatal maltreatment," "unwanted child," and "spousal revenge".
Going back to the Islam statistics and how it correlates with conflict, the 21 conflicts listed had Islam as a
contributing factor - not as just a background circumstance of each region's religion. For example Pakistan and Russia (Dagestan) have a religious element (Islam), yet a few like Sudan (Darfur) and Libya have a Muslim majority but aren't influenced (so say the authors) by religion.
TexRex
It does, as it demonstrates that belief in Islam doesn't itself incite acts of violence. Those who perpetrate acts of violence may seek to justify said acts citing belief in Islam, but this justification only flies where people in power have deemed such acts perpetrated in the name of Islam permissible. People perpetrate the acts and people permit (or even mandate, as the case may be) the acts; the blame lay not on belief in Islam.
TexRex
You offered the example, but an example does not an explanation make.
Incidentally, the King James Bible provides precisely the same punishment for the specified act:
No doubt it's a stiff penalty, but belief doesn't carry it out. That falls to...
...wait for it...
...wait a little longer...
...a little bit longer now...
...stamp your feet because you can't wait a second more...
...PEOPLE.
It doesn't absolve you of it. The person committed murder, not belief.
Christians tend to follow the words and actions of Jesus.
In the very same example I showed you it is shown in the NT that Jesus didn't carry out the punishment, forgiving the guilty for their sin. If we had evidence that Christians were going around stoning adulterers then we could examine your hypothesis further. As it is I find Christianity more homophobic than most other religions because of its text and contemporary/historical evidence of homophobic acts. If Muslims were to follow the words and actions of Muhammad then they'd see that....well he said this:
'Ubada b. as-Samit reported that whenever Allah's Apostle ﷺ received revelation, he felt its rigour and the complexion of his face changed. One day revelation descended upon him, he felt the same rigour. When it was over and he felt relief, he said: Take from me. Verily Allah has ordained a way for them (the women who commit fornication),: (When) a married man (commits adultery) with a married woman, and an unmarried male with an unmarried woman, then in case of married (persons) there is (a punishment) of one hundred lashes and then stoning (to death). And in case of unmarried persons, (the punishment) is one hundred lashes and exile for one year.
And we know that stoning has happened recently in Nigeria, Saudi Arabia, Algeria, Iran....
Scaff
Do you know how long it took me, using your own cited sources to debunk your position?
Less than five minutes.
Using a source that you said "
went into further analysis" that your own sources did, I came across the following:
View attachment 880550
View attachment 880551
And perhaps most significant
View attachment 880552
Note that the last one I haven't made bigger for emphasis, that's the papers own emphasis.
As such you either haven't read these sources, or you are blatantly cherry-picking from them and hoping others will not bother to check them!
As has been said by numerous people you are taking a correlation and forcing a causal link from it, you're not approaching this from an analytical perspective, but one of confirmation bias.
This more detailed analysis even disputes a correlation:
View attachment 880553
As such it doesn't agree with you on any level at all (correlation or causality), yet you cited it as a supporting paper!
That's saying there is no correlation between
all religions and peace. I'm arguing about Islam and peace.
More religious, peaceful non-Muslim countries may average out the more religious, Islamic non-peaceful countries. You can see that in the graph where the majority of extremes of higher/lower GPI are found in more religious countries, and the two highlighted non peaceful but highly religious countries are both Islamic. The authors also state that:
In 2013 the majority of conflicts with religious elements were based on establishing “an Islamic political structure or introduce or reinforce elements of Islamic law in the country’s institutions or in the form of a state. My rudimentary analysis of the top 20 and bottom 20 also backs this up.
Funnily enough I believe the authors didn't want to analyse this (imagine my shock), and that's why we're given the question:
IN MUSLIM COUNTRIES, DOES THE DEMOGRAPHIC SPREAD OF SUNNI AND SHIA DETERMINE PEACE? rather than one asking about Islam itself being a determinant. Chickens!