An armed civilian negates an armed criminal’s advantage. Criminals are not armed to combat armed civilians, what point of this escapes you?
Why not? That’s how your logic was flowing a couple pages ago. Less of 1=less of another.
The less incentive comes from what danoff said; if you know the population is armed, there’s less incentive to attempt to rob them. I didnt say it would stop robberies altogether. You yourself have already said most robberies happen when no ones home.
I am trying to follow your logic which doesnt make sense for me. You arm yourself to defend against criminals to get an advantage. But in my country civilians and these criminals cant arm themselves with guns so the criminal arm themselves perhaps with a knife. In the USA however they civilians are very likely to have a gun, so a criminal almost certain need to have a gun to not have a disadvantage.
The point isnt escaping me. You have to look at the point of view of a criminal. He does not know with a certainty which civilian has or does not have a gun. So he needs to carry one to not have a disadvantage. In a potential gunfight, the person who draws first and has the element of surprise always has the advantage. I dont see how this negates the advantage of a criminal? I rather prefer to have the majority of criminals to not have guns.
In your logic, because there are lots of people with guns in the usa. Therefor less incentive to rob these areas. So in the statistics areas with large gun ownership should have less robberies then areas with little gunownership? Because the criminals have more incentive to rob areas with less gunownership?
In the case of homicides I have seen numbers where there are more homicides in areas with large concentrated gunownership. In the links I posted there is no edvidence that gunownership makes you safer.
Those types of weapons were not intended by the founding fathers for everyday people to keep in their homes. Did anyone in those days own a cannon, artillery or have a warship parked on their dock? No. But they did have muskets and other firearms of the time. Small arms are what the founders intended everyday people to own and this is supported by years of court opinion as well. Asking if someone can have nukes because it doesn't specifically say it is like saying someone should be able to yell fire in a crowded theater because the first amendment.
How do you know what the founding fathers intended? There were no Nuclear bombs, or even weapons with
bullets at the time they wrote it. I am certain they didnt intend that civilians would use guns against each other over a disagreement, used in mass school shootings, because a person is mentally unhealthy. I am also pretty much certain they meant that the right to keep and bear arms was in the context of a well formed militia. The point is without them here to explain what they intended, one can intrepet the text a lot of ways. One of the reasons it should be updated or changed.
edit: cleaned up post