There is an invisible pink unicorn that you cannot touch or otherwise sense standing right next to you right now.
There is no support for it, and there is no support against it. What is the conclusion to be drawn? That it's just as valid to believe in the pink unicorn as it is to not believe in it?
There is an invisible orange unicorn that you cannot touch or otherwise sense standing right next to you right now.
There is an invisible blue unicorn that you cannot touch or otherwise sense standing right next to you right now.
There is an invisible purple unicorn that you cannot touch or otherwise sense standing right next to you right now.
There is an invisible red unicorn that you cannot touch or otherwise sense standing right next to you right now.
There is an invisible blue sea mist spray colored unicorn that you cannot touch or otherwise sense standing right next to you right now.
There is an invisible copper unicorn that you cannot touch or otherwise sense standing right next to you right now.
There is an invisible oriental perl metallic unicorn that you cannot touch or otherwise sense standing right next to you right now.
There is an invisible silbergrau unicorn that you cannot touch or otherwise sense standing right next to you right now.
There is an invisible imola red unicorn that you cannot touch or otherwise sense standing right next to you right now.
There is an invisible morning dew colored unicorn that you cannot touch or otherwise sense standing right next to you right now.
All of them are standing right next to you (and 11,765 more). There is no support for it, and there is no support against it. What is the conclusion to be drawn? That it's just as valid to believe in them as it is to not believe in it?
Your example is not similar in comparison.
Something more in line with the Bible would be testimonial documentation of UFOs.
Nevertheless, in view of the fact that there is no evidence currently available of any variety to support existence, it would be logical to believe they do not exist.
However, even in your much more extreme and remote example one cannot inadvertently, declare or conclude with 100% certainty they do not exist.
That is also the logical stance.
Anything that there is no evidence for, logically resides in the realm of possibility and therefore cannot be completely concluded as false.
It is only logical to accept things for which evidence exists.
Evidence, or conclusive evidence?
Evidence abounds for the Christian God, but from without none of it is conclusive.
How much and how often do you want to try and move the goalposts on this?
That moral standards could not exist without a deity and specifically the influence of a Christian deity was exactly what you claimed, I've already cited you saying as much.
It's not that a moral standard of some variety would cease to exist.
"Anything goes" is still a moral standard, such as it is.
But rather as far as a moral standard that is generally in acceptance today, which is regionally the result of Christian influence, would eventually cease to exist.
If you remove the basis of higher moral authority, moral standards become subject to an individual justification and concepts basis.
No one other than you started the basis of higher authority so I'm not sure why you are now attempting to prove you own invalid standard to yourself?
It's hypothetical, but certainly not an invalid concept from a human nature perspective.
Given the option for everyone to make their own rules, logically it is a foregone conclusion that confusion, chaos and anarchy would easily result.
There is nothing to prove.
In the hypothetical Buddha's moral standard is just one among many.
If you like it you can embrace it, if not you can pick some other.
Or make up your own.
Anything can be considered true, that's not the issue in question, its the evidence for them. As such this point is pointless.
Hardly.
This has already been explained.
In proving the negative in question, there is only one answer between two possible choices.
True or false.
Therefore it is acceptable to approach from either side, both are false, or both are true.
Evidence exists for both.
Only if you're quite frankly unable to separate the claimed source of the content (for which we have no evidence) from either the writer of the content (that we have evidence to support being a mortal man/men) or the document itself (which we have evidence of the existence of and for the changes made to it).
The problem with your assessment is you are precluding under illogical assumption what is evidential.
Logically as the above explanation states, the answer is unknown.
But it is one of two possibilities.
You are attempting to use the Bible as proof of the first, that Jesus as a divine being is the source of the Bible because the Bible says he is the Source of the Bible. That is circular logic and has no external evidence to support it.
Again, hardly.
The Bible is claimed as a documented testemonial record of events.
No where is it claimed as anything else, or as a fictional story.
Therefore it stands as evidential to validity on it's own account.
However, inconclusive of course.
Consequently to assume it is fiction is just that, an assumption completely unsupported by any conclusive evidence.
And from an available evidence basis, an illogical conclusion.
That men edited the Bible, added sections to it and have done so over the years has a significant body of evidence to support it, as does the existence of the work itself.
Your utterly bizarre attempt at logic would be the same as claiming that Princess Irulan exists/existed/will exist as a real person because the book Dune cites her as the source of numerous parts of itself, and should that not be accepted then we have no evidence that Dune exists as a book or that Frank Herbert wrote it!
To the contrary, the logic employed is completely sound.
Your example as far as I know, is not claimed as a testimonial record of events or non-fiction.
In fact it's classified as "Science fiction".
That is a completely opposite example.
Except that's not what I am doing, something that is both acutely clear and you're oddly utterly blind to.
All of which is on top of the fact that you are still using a psychological argument to true and argue a physical evidence, which invalidates your argument from the off.
In the final analysis, to examine the Bible from without you can logically believe it is untrue,
or you can also logically believe it is true.
Thats a matter of individual perspective which may or maynot include evidence.
From a strictly evidential basis, since there is no conclusive evidence to prove it is false, you cannot logically conclude it is false.
No, it is a matter of relevance. Let me change the example a little bit. I could have written: "I'm sitting here sipping coffee from my cup", and continue at one point with: ".. accidentally knocking the cup from the desk, scattering glass all over the place". In the former part, the material was irrelevant. It only became relevant in the latter part. Whether or not you trust these statements, is a whole different matter. There is no perceived inconsistency.
Yes, but how does that relate.
Was Jesus considered relevant at the time he lived? If so, by whom? And can you guide me to documentation supporting this?
Yes the Bible.