I gave you the explanation of what I meant
You mean this?
I mean those who are forced to wear it probably aren't allowed to go to the beach.
Which was no clarification at all. I asked you for an example, and the best that you could come up with was a generalisation:
Because even you know that it happens. Take off the tinted glasses.
You have seen the videos of women burning their burkas.
Followed by an anecdote:
To add to that, I have a friend, a Turkish woman who kicked out her husband and divorced him once he decided that he was the man of the house, and his will was law and that she needed to wear a scarf, because he said so.
Neither of which are passable as evidence.
Looking back at your original post, you associate the burqa with a symbol of oppression. Since you never went any further than that, the implication of your statement was that anybody who wears the burqa is a victim of oppression. However, in the context of the French court ruling, the burqa is a symbol of Islam; therefore, your comments imply that Islam is oppressive.
At this point, I asked you for a specific example of women burning burqas. I myself cited the only example that I had seen, which was in Afghanistan. Since the Taliban selectively practiced a mix of Islam and archaic tribal customs, it was no clear what the burning of the burqas was a response to - Islam or the Taliban, and since the Taliban are not representative of Islam, I don't think that you could make the case that they were burning burqas because they were free of Islam, thus pointing out the problem with implying that Islam is oppressive because the burqa is oppressive.
It's at this point that you went on the offensive. To be clear: you never bothered to make it clear what you were referring to, provided fallacious evidence when prompted to substantiate your comments, and then threw a tantrum when I didn't take your word for it.