Really?
I dunno, that seems to mean that the Scientific Revolution would never have happened and Europeans would never have built up modern science using the scientific method.
Yes, basically.
The Scientific Revolution might have happened eventually, but it might not have happened in Europe and it
definitely wouldn't have happened when it did.
Modern science almost certainly comes around eventually, or something like it. But when and how is likely to be completely different.
That's the preservation of others ideas.
Sure there was some ingenuity, particularly in the field of maths but substantial contributions? I'm not convinced.
If you're actually interested:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Islamic_Golden_Age
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Science_in_the_medieval_Islamic_world
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematics_in_medieval_Islam
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Timeline_of_science_and_engineering_in_the_Islamic_world
But if you don't want a lot of reading, then it's easiest to cut to the chase:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scientific_Revolution#Ancient_and_medieval_background
The Scientific Revolution was built upon the foundation of ancient Greek learning and science in the Middle Ages, as it had been elaborated and further developed by Roman/Byzantine science and medieval Islamic science. - Grant, E. (1996). The Foundations of Modern Science in the Middle Ages: Their Religious, Institutional, and Intellectual Contexts. pp. 29–30, 42–7.
I mean, it's pretty inarguable that the Scientific Revolution and modern science in general owed and owes a lot to the Greeks. Right? If you disagree, I think we can stop right here.
But if that's so, then the same can be argued for all the scientific development between the Greeks and the Scientific Revolution. All that stuff contributed, if it hadn't been there then either the people involved in the Scientific Revolution would have had to repeat that work for themselves (and it's not as simple as going out behind the shed for a couple of days and knocking out relationships between velocity, acceleration and force).
I mean, check out this guy:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ibn_al-Haytham
Sometimes called "the father of modern optics", he made significant contributions to the principles of optics and visual perception in particular, his most influential work being his Kitāb al-Manāẓir (كتاب المناظر, "Book of Optics"), written during 1011–1021, which survived in the Latin edition. A polymath, he also wrote on philosophy, theology and medicine.
Ibn al-Haytham was the first to explain that vision occurs when light bounces on an object and then is directed to one's eyes. He was also an early proponent of the concept that a hypothesis must be proved by experiments based on confirmable procedures or mathematical evidence—hence understanding the scientific method five centuries before Renaissance scientists.
His main work, Kitab al-Manazir (Book of Optics), was known in the Muslim world mainly, but not exclusively, through the thirteenth-century commentary by Kamāl al-Dīn al-Fārisī, the Tanqīḥ al-Manāẓir li-dhawī l-abṣār wa l-baṣā'ir. In al-Andalus, it was used by the eleventh-century prince of the Banu Hud dynasty of Zaragossa and author of an important mathematical text, al-Mu'taman ibn Hūd. A Latin translation of the Kitab al-Manazir was made probably in the late twelfth or early thirteenth century. This translation was read by and greatly influenced a number of scholars in Christian Europe including: Roger Bacon, Robert Grosseteste, Witelo, Giambattista della Porta, Leonardo Da Vinci, Galileo Galilei, Christiaan Huygens, René Descartes, and Johannes Kepler.
I think if you write a book on optics that is influencing Da Vinci, Galileo, Huygens and Kepler, you're probably doing all right. And there are dozens of similarly influential thinkers in that part of the world at around that period in time. I'm not going to dig them out for you one by one. If you're truly curious, I've given you enough information here for you to find some entry points. If you're not curious then you can't be convinced by reason anyway.
Neither was Dawkins (with regards to contributions) when he said that the whole of the Islamic world had produced less Nobel winners in science than Trinity College Cambridge....
One college..
In one institution..
In one country..
And as long as you're cherry picking your time period to only during the existence of the Nobel Prize, sure. And ignoring the inherent bias that the Nobel committees has had towards western and European work for most of their existence.
How many great thinkers did Trinity put out between 800 and 1400AD? None? Does that mean that Trinity isn't an excellent college? Of course not. That would be silly.
Dawkins is a smart guy, but he's also prone to saying inflammatory things purely for the sake of being inflammatory. And hey, when I go to look up that statement it turns out that there's some more that you omitted...
All the world's Muslims have fewer Nobel Prizes than Trinity College, Cambridge. They did great things in the Middle Ages, though.
Oh my. That sounds awfully like the point that you were arguing against. Did you seriously not get far enough through his tweet to read the second sentence?