I've become sort of an officianado on another forum I frequent. I'll post a few of my generic arguments, for your viewing enjoyment.
----This was written approximately 3 years ago, and hasn't been refuted, therefore I haven't polished it up, at all---------------------------------------------------
First of all it would be VERY strange because Adam and Eve would have to have every genetic possible allele in existance in their bodies. One would have to have all dominant traits and the other have all recessive traits, or a mixture of the two. Not only that but their offspring would have to carry every allelle they possesed. Which is VERY unlikely considering how the production of gametes work and the fact that every gamete has a different variation of the parent's DNA.
Furthermore, all genes (both dominant and recessive plus others *some alleles have three or even four possibilities*) would have to be present when Noah came about. Let's just forget anything before the flood (lets assume it was 4,400 years ago..2,400 BC) From that time, humans would have to have reproduced, traveled, settled and found ways to survive. Everyone with me so far? From those few people, who HAD TO BE a "mixture" of every trait, all the races would have had to MICROEVOLVE into black, white, hispanic, asian, etc..
Not only that but in the 2400 years between Christ and Noah, the population would have to have moved and expanded to all reaches of Europe, Asia, and Africa, go through micro-evolution into their adapted forms (black in africa, whites in europe, asians in asia, and whatever middle easterners are called.), and then set up civilizations.
It is impossible for those micro evolutions to occur between the 2,400 years before Christ came along, much less by now. Hardy Weignberg problems show that it would be impossible, but Again, I will give you guys the benefit of the doubt.
Lets take a look at empirical evidence.
Here are dates of rulers and their pyramids.
-Bent Pyramid-Pharaoh Snefru (2680-2565 BC)
-The sphynx is a mythical creature and his pyramid that supposedly was built by the Pharaoh Khafre-Chephren about 2500 B.C.
-Pyramid of Pepi II (2250 B.C.)
http://www.nationalgeographic.com/pyramids/pyramids.html
This is fine and dandy. Let's assume that two people populated the earth enough to have the pyramids build in 2600BC. What about 2250BC, only 150 years after the flood? Doesn't seem possible, eh? They would have had to travel to the place where it was built, settle, reproduce exponentially, and build something that takes up to a century in 150 years? Hmm.
And according to this (it doesn't state any beleifs, I am just taking the INFORMATION and applying it to this discussion..
http://searchenginez.com/2012/america_pyramids.html
Humans were in the America's as early as 800 BC and no latter than 100 AD according to the time one mound was built in Miamisburg Mound, Ohio.
quote:
Near Mexicos current capital, this city of ruins was thought to have been home to 125,000 people in 600 AD. Teotihuacan was founded in 100 BC, and deserted by 750 AD, which sounds tragic yet few civilizations manage to last 850 years.
So they spread into what is now Mexico and set up a VERY LARGE city by 100 BC.. Now correct me if I'm wrong, but cities with 125,000 people don't just spring up out of nowheres, there has to be preexistant civilization there with a base of agriculture and other things in order to sustain such a place?
So in 2,300 years, civilization spread completely to the other side of the globe. Let's not even take into account the time that that Alaska-Russia land or ice bridge was there... the last Ice Age, which was supposedly longer than that, but according to Creationists, that is science, science is right, except for evolution.... Hmm since when is Ice Ages part of evolution?
Ok this one is kinda corny because it has to do with pigs but civilizations were in asia by 2250 according to this. So in 150 years, they build the pyramids and some of them already traversed from whereever in the Middle East it is that the ARC landed to Asia? Hmm.
http://www.geocities.com/TheTropics/Shores/7484/time/tl-civ1.htm
ok now just look at when Mayans came to be... Not only did they start a civilization across the globe 400 years after the flood, they were a group of people which had already microevolved into one race. Let's not even get into the logistics of those people moving that great a distance, nor the amount of rapid population growth that would have been needed. Also notice there are sustained civilizations THROUGH the flood... Then Indus and China civilizations that started during if not right after the flood...
http://chaos1.hypermart.net/anciv/
-----Here is my response to a quoted post. I tried to explain, on this kid's request, why he was wrong about genetics and their relation to creationism-----------------------
random user from other forum
seeing as they were the first humans god created they were perfect, as they had probably arou nd 60 kids, all can inherit different traits, im in biology i know some genetics, not all, but the changes is the geneticsa as we notice cpome from as you have pointed out microevolutions due to different temperaturs and amounts of uv rays around the earth thius changing peoples appearance. As they imbred the genetics slowly got worse and worse, they slowly started living shorter, adam lived 900 years, humans now, only 90 in thetop average. As people imbred more they slowly developed mutations which is where the point in which it was stated no imbreading and such because A it was not needed, and B it cause genetic diseases
I will try to stay away from your theory on genetics and how it relates to creation, since I don't want to step on your "moral" toes, but it will tie in at points.
First of all, each allele normally has two bits of information, expressed as letters. For the most part, it is expressed as AA for Dominant-Dominant, Aa for Dominant-Recessive, or aa for Recessive-Recessive. Something you should know- think Punnett Squares. This wouldnt be a problem for the Adam and Eve story, if it werent for what follows
something Ive already explained, for those of you who are paying any attention.
If every allele only had two possibilities, Dominant or Recessive, everything would be hunky dory (well, not really, but Ill get to that later). The problem is, some genes have more than two alleles. This is what causes many genetic problems, especially in bottleneck effects. If Im not mistaken, blood type has three alleles- A, b, and O- but dont quote me on that. Therefore, as Ive stated over and over, EVERY GENE THAT WE HAVE TODAY must have expressed every allele in Adam and Eve. Since certain combinations of alleles are harmful, it is statistically impossible for them to be perfect. And if they were, it would be completely impossible for their children to be normal. I can conclude that because if Adam was perfect, Eves genetic code MUST have been exactly the same, phenotypically. Therefore, it would be inbreeding (Ill tell another reason it would be inbreeding in the next paragraph). That poses many questions, regarding the genotype and phenotypes of them both. We can discern, undoubtedly, that genotypically they could be slightly different (more on why they would be genotypically the same, next paragraph) because of the same phenotypic effects AA and Aa have.
Now, why would it be inbreeding? Because, inbreeding happens when two very genetically similar organisms mate. If Adam and Eve are both perfect, they would have EXTREMELY similar genotypes, and nearly (only nearly because of theyre of the opposite sex) identical phenotypes (not that phenotypes matters at this stage). Now, brothers and sisters are only slightly similar, genetically, sharing, at most, something like 12%-25% IDENTICAL genetic make-up, in DNA. Adam and Eve, on the other hand, would cause nearly 50%, at LOWEST, identical. The result would be worse than parent/child incest. Sure, incest has happened and isnt really going to mean horrible things, but let me continue.
I contend that Adam and Eve would have been identical in genotype not only because of the implications and self obvious truths of being Perfect, but because according to Genesis, they were genetic clones. You may now be thinking to yourself, Whaaa
? I know, its a queer thought, but follow me. Genesis says that Eve was fashioned out of Adams extra rib. This is, theoretically, possible with todays medical technology, but thats not the point. The point is, it is entirely possible that God did this. Now, I could go into a whole bit about how the whole problem of Adam having an XY chromosome would make it impossible, but in reality it is entirely possible for any number of reasons:
-The Y Chromosome being suppressed somehow.
-God used Mitosis or Meiosis and simply doubled the Gamete-like cells Chromosomes (the one containing the X, of course)
-Adam was Tetraploidy. But that would create serious problems because they wouldnt be able to reproduce, at all.
-Adam was triploidy in his 23rd Chromosome- with XXY. In this case, God would have had to find some way to either discard or suppress the Y in Eve. This is possibly the most plausible explanation because nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes causes this in 1 of 2,000 births. But, it doesnt go unpunished. Adam would have probably had Klinefelter syndrome- resulting in small testes and sterileness. Opps.. Looks like God could take care of that, though.
In any event, Adam and Eve would be very similar. Their offspring would be inbreed. Their offspring would then further inbreed. A good way to think about it is dealing with dogs, found here. Sure, you can say that it was different back then, but you must show us proof that back then the physics of the universe were different and that the laws of chemistry were likewise different, along with the way traits were passed on through the generations.
I think that about covers your statement that seeing as they were the first humans god created they were perfect. Now, Ill address all can inherit different traits.
That statement is factually inaccurate. What it proposes, and implies is that there would be 60 different phenotypes for each gene. That isnt the case. The vast majority have 2- Dominant and Recessive. A few, such as blood type (Im fairly certain blood type is an example), have more than two phenotypes, but never 60. But this isnt really the problem. Genetic problems dont really arise because of two people having the same trait, but usually a combination of genes which interact together to form adverse results. I would try and explain to you why and how this happens, but that would take entirely too long and be ineffective, because each and everyone of these phenomenon is different. So, BASICALLY, Adam and Eve have two, maybe three traits that they can pass onto their children for EACH gene, but that isnt why inbreeding is bad. Its bad because they would be giving their offspring long chains of identical information- another way this is bad is because if any of the information is bad (yes, I know, they were perfect, but as I will point out, its impossible to change the genetic code so drastically) the offspring (1 out of 4 in F1 generations) have two sets of bad alleles for that gene.
I would now like to move onto genetic mutations and diseases. Ill use Downs Syndrome as an example because of its rate of occurrence, 1 out of 700 births. Downs Syndrome isnt inheritable- In fact, the law of averages dictates that if someone in your family has it, your offsprings odds of contracting the condition look better. Downs Syndrome occurs because of nondisjunction
. Nondisjunction (causing trisomy 21), which accounts for 95% of Downs Syndrome patients, occurs randomly during meiosis. In fact, my Biology textbook states that nondisjunction (of the any other, or all Chromosomes) occurs at extremely high rates and that the fetus is naturally aborted. In addition, Downs Syndrome is one of the many problems caused by nondisjunction- my guess is that this really does happen very often in humans
I mean, 1 in 700 get an extra Chromosome 21, and 1 in 2,000 get an extra Chromosome 23. The point is, these things do not arise on their own from a state of perfectness- these things happen constantly. So unless someone knows of a reason why the laws of physics and how chemistry worked back then was different, let me know.
I think that is enough for tonight
If anyone is keeping track, I responded to the first line and a half here, so far. I will try to finish up the rest
NOTE: I never did finish it up because the kid never responded, and everyone else just ignored it I guess. It's probably full of inaccuracies though, but I go off on tangents all the time.
-------------Someone else gave a set of links...-------------------------------------------------------------------
another random user
After a quick glance, I see numerous fallacies and falsehoods being propagated in each of these webpages.
Instead of disproving the whole thing (every peice of information), like I've probably done countless times before, I'll point out the ones that caught my eye. If you'd like to discuss any of the other things on these sites, I'd be more than willing to look at something in particular which you think is true.
In the first link, the first thing I see is a picture of Archaeopteryx. That, in and of itself is grounds for me to dismiss the entire website, but I won't. I'll dismiss the fact that they are propagating a well known falsehood (that Archaeopteryx
is a fake, or whatever new bogus explanation they've come up with to discredit this fossil that THEY have dubbed "transitional"- to be clear, there is no such thing as a transitional FOSSIL. No species has ever evolved so quickly that the entire specie change could be seen in one generation.).
I simply went to their first essay, and found this in the first three paragraphs.
We are surrounded with matter. Some scientists estimate that there is an estimated 1 * 10^53 kilograms (not pounds) of matter in the universe. Everything which has a beginning has a cause. This leaves where would this matter come from? What caused it to come into being? All of evolutionists' theories of origins start by assuming the existence of matter.
To solve this problem, some evolutionists assume that matter has existed for all time. This is not based on any particular set of scientific data, but rather on their particular philosophical assumptions. And what is "time"? Can time truely exist independent of space?
Well, I'll assume many, if not all of you are not familiar with the Theory of Relativity, are you? It's something a little old Jewish chap named Albert wrote up back in the early 1900's. Since his passing it has been proven, without a doubt, that time IS DEPENDENT on space.
Second link...
I just don't know what to say about this webpage.... I would just post my usual thing about how the flood is impossible based on the way civilizations developed and that if there was any flood whatsoever, it was on a small, local scale...... But this page takes the cake.
It proposes that (and I'm not embellishing here, at all- read it for yourself) there is an ocean of water below the crust of the Earth, the crust cracked (it says that this is unusual becuase the crust doesn't crack (what the hell are fault lines then?)), the water shot out creating the fountain described in the Bible, the crack got bigger (splitting on each end at two miles PER SECOND) and as the water came up, the Earth sunk, then, as it sunk, the bottom of it (the mantle, which they CLAIM is made of BASALT) then rose up and out rapidly. They claim that this is what made the Mid-Oceanic Ridge (nevermind that the Ridge is spreading still today, and that the continents STILL move away from each other at a constant rate). So, assuming this is true, it would have split the continents thousands of miles apart in no less than a few hours (no, it didnt have 40 days and 40 nights because this couldn't have happened till the water was finished moving). It then goes on to say that it is proven by a 1 mile deep river of salt water below the Tibetan Plateau, but doesn't give any evidence to this, muchless a study or report we can look at to verify it's existance. (I don't doubt it exists, but it certainly doesn't mean the entire Earth sits on top an ocean)
Now, let me point out the many weak points that are obvious.
-Water is LESS DENSE than rock, unless the water is under pressure greater than the rock. Consequently, things in areas of low density DO NOT move to areas of high density (and yes, I know reverse osmosis is possible, but only in a reaction or under pressure). Therefore, water, in such massive quanitites cannot be residing below the surface, as oceans of free-moving water. Aquifers are not the same thing as free-moving oceans. Now, that is an important thing to accept because he is proposing that this process repeats itself, and that water is collecting down in the bowels of the Earth to happen again.
-To continue with water, there are underground rivers of salt water. We know that. They aren't evidence of an underground ocean. That's absurd. The ONLY way there can be an ocean is if the outside edges of it fully supported everything above it (this is how underground rivers are capable- the above material is supported by the side walls... but a river isn't wide like an ocean and furthermore, an underground river wouldn't be under pressure from anything but it's own weight.). BUT, that's impossible. Otherwise, there would have to be no cracks, at all in the rocks above in order to be capable of supporting the weight. Furthermore, it would mean the rocks had to be COMPLETELY inpenetrable to water... Not gonna happen.
-If this is how the Mid-Oceanic ridge came about (he draws it as it is today, as if it has been like this since that time period) and consequently the continents split, ending Pangea, then why isn't there a HUGE mountain range reaching to the heavens on the other side of the world? I mean, where is any evidence that the earth split on one side and pushed out. This would have resulted in a sudden upshift, or downshift in the crust on the other side of the world (Pacific Ocean). As an example, put your fingers together, end to end. Extend your arms out in a horizontal fashion. Then push as hard as you can together. What happens? Your fingers buckle. If you held them stiff, they buckled upwards. If you held them limp, they buckled downward. There is no evidence of this happening.
-Althought it uses some lake in the Himalayas to promote the idea of a rapid movement of the Contintents, it makes no mention of how or why would India break off of Africa, move thousands of miles, and smash into Asia, if this supposed fountain had sprung up from present day Mid-Oceanic Ridge. Perhaps he should amend his thesis to say that every faultline is where the ground cracked? Or.....
-Maybe he shouldn't.... BECAUSE, he makes no attempt to explain why there are more than one, or two, plates. Likewise, he doesn't mention that each tectonic plate on Earth has unique characteristics. That is something that puts to shame his idea of a seemless crust to the Earth. In addition, I should add, that when I say "unique characteristics", I mean that each plate is made up of different types of rocks- vastly different, they move in very different directions, have different ages, etc., etc.
-I could keep going, but lastly... how did this water disappear so rapidly?
Last link.... I couldn't agree more with this except from it.. "Creation Science is an oxymoron since science is concerned only with naturalistic explanations of empirical phenomena and does not concern itself with supernatural explanations of metaphysical phenomena."
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I guess that's enough; for it is all I have on this new PC. If anyone has any comments, questions, or thinks I'm an idiot, I would love to know.
Well, if anyone's crazy enough to read all that.... congrats. Because I know I wouldn't. then again, I wrote it.
P.S.- I'm not a complete nut, and I'm not an athiest. I very much believe in God, but I don't take the bible literally in regards to "creation." So please, refrain from attacking my faith in God, as so many have done before.