You mean because you identify as a Christian first and fore-most and if I recall have dismissed other deities in the past, as such when you state God (and the capital at the start is critical) you have always been referring to the Christian one.
As far as my belief yes I refer to the the Christian God, but as applied to the theory it goes one step further.
There is no higher being or power upon which to base moral authority.
What have pagans got to do with anything?
That may not have been the best word to use.
Perhaps secular humanist influence would be better.
However why do we have to rewind 2,000 years? Christianity is not the only religion on the planet, plenty of others exist and manage to do so without mob rule.
The reason we, as in you and me, would have to rewind 2000yrs is because we are a product of 2000yrs of Christian influence.(Europe and America)
That is unmistakable, undeniable, and unchangeable without the rewind.
So when Penn Jillette or you make statements as to your high moral character, you are doing so, as I said under the benefit of that influence.
Or if you were not a product of that influence, you may have a completely different moral standard.
Its also rather worrying that you feel without the fear of God you would be more inclined to murder and rape. Why do you think that is not the case for such a large number of other people?
Well thats just a guess.
As I said, there is no way to determine that without the rewind.
Perhap's I wouldn't be so inclined, I don't know.
There is no way to say if I were a product of 2000yrs of some other moral beliefs, practices, and teachings, what my moral inclinations would be.
You have no reason to worry under the present existing circumstance, since it is not possible to perform a rewind.
I'm more inclined to worry about the eventual affects of the secular humanist influence.
If the parts of the Bible that are inaccurate are the fault of man how do you know which part is right and which part is wrong?
Again they are perceivably inaccurate, not conclusively.
Or not beyond the possiblity of a reasonable explanation.
Consequently I have to consider them of the gnat variety.
Or they do not take away from the clear and present Camel.(main point or theme)
Yes you do, your entire belief structure requires it.
The difference, as I've stated is the personal or individual confirmation or what has been shown to me through the acceptance and receipt of the Holy Spirit as conclusive to the Bible and it's teachings.
And the same is displayed through others here.
Under that exposure, I am compelled to give God the benefit of doubt.
Obviously, that is a circumstance completely unique in that respect, as far as I know.
I am confident either way God knows the circumstance, and as I said earlier we may know at some point in the future.
But you just inferred that we shouldn't draw conclusions from inconclusive evidence?
I am inferring that as far as me personally, Jesus's remark in question is consistent with his other teachings and as said not beyond the possiblity of a reasonable explanation why it is not in the oldest original text.
So instead you draw a conclusion from zero evidence, as that's how much you have that he said it.
Same answer as above.
I think in this particular instance we have a distinct difference between our standards of reasonable doubt.
Outside of the Bible we have two independent references to Jesus from one source (and even he lived after Jesus) and all he stated was that a man called Jesus was baptized by a man called John and that the Roman's crucified a man called Jesus.
That's it, as such no evidence outside of the bible (of which the oldest one flat out contradicts your claim) to support your claim.
In that regard it is not conclusively established either way.
BTW, I don't think you answered this question:
"who decides what is bad"?
How can you say this when you previously said:
So someone must be wrong in thinking they can challenge anyone else's conduct. This makes slavery wrong straight away, as well as murder and theft.
As far as slavery, murder and theft they are challenged on the basis of a higher moral authority, not the absense of it.
"Personal logic" is not logic, it is just a logical fallacy. So something being logical to someone doesn't justify anything. It has to actually be logical.
Under the circmstantial hypothetical, thats irrellevant.
Of course, humans are capable of making mistakes.
No doubt.
While I'm here, I kind of curious as to why you ignored my response to your morality challenge:
I think I already have.