it doesn't change the morality of that single act.
I don't see how you can single out an action, circumstances are of vital importance in moral questions.
If so, you did not need to mention anything about 'many times more arabs', you should have just left it at; "is killing all the Israeli's a moral action".
Which is easily answered by asking:
"are you [based on what we know], minimizing harm?"
How much money is sufficient before I can kill them? Infinite? What if it were something more precious than money - like freedom.
Good question, which i cannot answer easily.
What if I know that they just want to kill me, and no one else. What if I accidentally ran over their kid with my car (and was penalized sharply by the legal system, but obviously not executed) and the father, mother, and brother were all breaking into my house to kill me to avenge the death of their kid/brother. Must I shoot myself then? Since I am 1 and they are 3.
How would you getting killed as well as the kid, minimize harm?
Again morality issues are complex, and the scenario you give here is really complicated. i could say 'flee', but i guess you'll just restrict the scenario further
i have no clear answer to this, let's establish the attackers are not minimizing harm, hence they are acting immoral.
Should you shoot them or yourself? i'd say aim for the feet
Can a convict on the run from a death penalty shoot down officers who aim to shoot him down?
Perhaps i should have stressed that 'a simple definition' does not mean the application is simple in every case.
If the convict was framed...
[lacking altruism] That's not a mental disorder
What do you claim it is?
It doesn't matter to me whether that person lives or dies by someone else's hand. It isn't moral for ME to take their life - regardless the outcome (ie: ends/means)......Same answer.
Alright, i understand you judge isolated actions, where i judge as much circumstances as possible.
I am glad in courts of law circumstances are important.
You're phrasing this in such a way as to have your cake and eat it to. You propose a system of morality in which the ends justify the means. Then you present a scenario in which the beginnings justify the means and claim that it proves that the ends do.
i'll need to try and understand what you mean here, so i'll get back to you on this one. I am aiming for a total picture and not judge actions isolated, because actions rarely are.
You need to understand English is not my native language (like you didn't notice
)
Perhaps you made a post explaining 'end justify' and 'beginnings justify'.
(as you did in the startpost, but that does not really clarify it me, i not so happy with how you put things it when you say:
Rights exist in part because they are reciprocal. In order to ask me to observe your rights, you must observe mine. The instant you violate my rights, you forfeit some of your own.
what i consider a more workable proposition is:
My rights end where the rights of others begin and vice-versa. (and when someone violates my rights, all circumstances need to be taken into account)
Now, this may sound like the same thing, but i think it better covers an overlap in rights.
If i steal from someone else, you mean i can no longer claim rights to my property (in lack of better words).
How broad do you mean that, from society as a whole, or just by the person i stole from, i suppose the latter, and i guess in proportion.
Though i for a large part agree with the reasoning, i'm not (yet!) sure it can actually work that way.
If he does not observe human rights, his rights are forfeit. I can kill him if I choose - because he no longer has a right to life. That's not a violation of rights.
If someone kills someone else he automatically forfeits his right to live?
Regardless of circumstances?
And who is to kill him then?, not the one he killed, that's for sure, some kind of wild west outlaw or something?
Can i use free speech to speak out against free speech, or do i loose my right to free speech when i do that?
Of course i consider it highly hypocritical if someone does this, but i am not yet convinced that person's right for free speech can be taken away.
I am not sure, i used to be sure
But now i think that speaking out against free speech is not sufficient to deny him free speech.
I see certainly see merit in some kind of 'forfeiture of rights when violating them' (beginnings right?)
But i don't see how 'ends justify the means' can be discarded.
If the ends don't justify the means, the 'beginnings' are not sufficient.
But perhaps i am confusing 'beginnings' and 'ends' again