Association Football Trivia Thread

[polysmut]

Dave Basset?

 

[Liquid]

Dave Basset?

Dave Bassett is the right answer. He coined the term "route one football" for the robust long ball game his Wimbledon side employed in his and their rise up the divisions. Gould and Kinnear came afterwards and carried the same ethos.

 

[polysmut]

In the English Football League, what record is shared by Walter Boyd and Keith Gillespie?

 

[MUSC4EVER]

Walter Boyd was is a cult Hero of Swansea City, he is/was a Jamaican striker who played for us when we were crap and down in the bottom of the Football League scrapping for everything and he came in, wore different coloured boost before anyone else in the squad at the time and had a good goal-scoring record during his time there...

...one thing he was famous for was during one game (cant remember the opponent) he got sent off after zero seconds, he came of the bench, punched an opposing player, got sent off, all before the ref could re-start his watch after he came on...

...It might be that, not sure if Gillespie did the same...

 

[polysmut]

Walter Boyd was is a cult Hero of Swansea City, he is/was a Jamaican striker who played for us when we were crap and down in the bottom of the Football League scrapping for everything and he came in, wore different coloured boost before anyone else in the squad at the time and had a good goal-scoring record during his time there...

...one thing he was famous for was during one game (cant remember the opponent) he got sent off after zero seconds, he came of the bench, punched an opposing player, got sent off, all before the ref could re-start his watch after he came on...

...It might be that, not sure if Gillespie did the same...

Correct.
The fastest red card for a substitute on the field of play. The two players share the record of 0 seconds.

Walter Boyd did it playing for Swansea City on 12th March 2000 and Keith Gillespie did it playing for Sheffield United on 20th January 2007.

 

[MUSC4EVER]

I do believe its my go...

Which player has scored the most Champions League goals without ever winning the competition?

You may get this straight away!

 

[Liquid]

Hmm. Good one, no name immediately springs to mind. Ibrahimovic?

 

[daan]

Ruud Van Nistelrooy?

 

[MUSC4EVER]

It was indeed Ruud Van Nistelrooy, scored 56 goals Champions League goals for PSV, Man United and Real Madrid, he's a three time Champions League top scorer and fourth on the overall top scorer list, he never won the competition itself, he is currently the assistant manager of the Netherlands

Your go @daan if you want.

 

[daan]

I'll see if I can come up with something tomorrow, but if someone else wants to go in the meantime, they can.

 

[polysmut]

I'll see if I can come up with something tomorrow, but if someone else wants to go in the meantime, they can.

Hopefully just a quick one while @daan gathers a question together...

A nation once had two representatives in the Cup Winners Cup tournament, neither of which was the reigning Cup holder domestically. Can anybody explain the situation?

 

[Famine]

A nation once had two representatives in the Cup Winners Cup tournament, neither of which was the reigning Cup holder domestically. Can anybody explain the situation?

I can't say who it was, but entry to the CWC was limited to one per member nation unless the CWC winners themselves neither qualified through their domestic cup or qualified to the European Cup through the league.

So I'd say that one participant won the previous CWC and the other was given the CWC place from the domestic cup due to the winners qualifying for European Cup in the league.

 

[polysmut]

I can't say who it was, but entry to the CWC was limited to one per member nation unless the CWC winners themselves neither qualified through their domestic cup or qualified to the European Cup through the league.

So I'd say that one participant won the previous CWC and the other was given the CWC place from the domestic cup due to the winners qualifying for European Cup in the league.

That is the exact scenario that occurred. Which I suppose is all that I asked for.
Care to guess at the teams/nation?

 

[Liquid]

Famine definitely gets the points for working out the scenario. I couldn't work it out.

England? Man United were crap before the PL but I know they won the 1990-91 CWC, meaning that for 1991-92 it would have been Tottenham (1991 FA Cup winners) and Man United if United were allowed to defend their crown.

 

[polysmut]

Famine definitely gets the points for working out the scenario. I couldn't work it out.

England? Man United were crap before the PL but I know they won the 1990-91 CWC, meaning that for 1991-92 it would have been Tottenham (1991 FA Cup winners) and Man United if United were allowed to defend their crown.

It was England but you're looking back just slightly too far.

& neither team was the domestic cup holder in our scenario, remember.

 

[adamp93]

I know Arsenal won it in 1994 and were in the final in 1995 but I don't think they won the fa cup in 1994. So I'd guess it was Arsenal and the fa cup runners up from that year, but I don't remember due to me being about 9 months old at the time.

 

[polysmut]

It was the 1994-95 season & Arsenal were in the competition as holders, having won the Cup Winners Cup in '94.

My vague memory of it is that they lost in the semi, not he final. I could be wrong though. They conceded a very long range goal scored by Nayim, I think it was PSG that knocked them out.

 

[Liquid]

They conceded a very long range goal scored by Nayim, I think it was PSG that knocked them out.

Was that the right answer then? The only thing I do know is that the Nayim goal was for Zaragoza.

 

[polysmut]

The only thing I do know is that the Nayim goal was for Zaragoza.

Of course, yes. Now I remember.

Was that the right answer then?

@adamp93 was right about Arsenal and about the year. The other team was Chelsea.
Here it is, all spelled out.

In the 1994–95 season England had two representatives in the tournament, neither of which was the reigning FA Cup holder.
Arsenal, who had won the Cup Winners Cup the previous year and Chelsea, who had lost the 1993–94 FA Cup final to double winners Manchester United.
Both teams were eliminated from competition by eventual winners Real Zaragoza of Spain.

Up to you what you want to give out points for, obviously.
@Famine answered what I asked for in the question & @adamp93 and you both added some of the detail.

 

[Barra333]

Newcastle and Chelsea both played in the 1998-99 CWC too. From what I can see, it was almost the same situation as 94-95.
Chelsea won the 97-98 CWC and Newcastle lost the FA Cup final to Arsenal, who went off to the Champions League by virtue of coming 2nd in the league.

 

[polysmut]

Newcastle and Chelsea both played in the 1998-99 CWC too. From what I can see, it was almost the same situation as 94-95.
Chelsea won the 97-98 CWC and Newcastle lost the FA Cup final to Arsenal, who went off to the Champions League by virtue of coming 2nd in the league.

Maybe it happened more than once then?
Wikipedia has it noted as if it was a one off.

 

[Barra333]

Looks like the wiki page you are seeing is making stuff up. All it takes to get two teams from one nation in it is for the winning team to have an average year in the league/domestic cup that year.
Looks like France had two teams in 96-97 too. PSG won in 95-95 and Nimes Olympique were there too. Looks like it happened in 92-93 (Werder Bremen played Hannover 96 in the first round) and 93-94 (Parma/Torino). Actually, it looks like one nation had two teams every year from the 91-92 edition until the end, except for the year after Barcelona won.

 

[Liquid]

Who's turn is it?

 

[polysmut]

Who's turn is it?

@daan was going to think of one unless somebody else wanted to have a go first.
Then I asked one, which @Famine answered the main part of, & extra detail was provided by @Liquid & @adamp93.

So, maybe it's still @daan's turn?

Looks like the wiki page you are seeing is making stuff up. All it takes to get two teams from one nation in it is for the winning team to have an average year in the league/domestic cup that year.
Looks like France had two teams in 96-97 too. PSG won in 95-95 and Nimes Olympique were there too. Looks like it happened in 92-93 (Werder Bremen played Hannover 96 in the first round) and 93-94 (Parma/Torino). Actually, it looks like one nation had two teams every year from the 91-92 edition until the end, except for the year after Barcelona won.

The page could easily be wrong, yes.
The question was about 2 teams when neither of them was the domestic cup holder though. Surely not all of those pairs fit that description?

Spoiler: Wiki

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/UEFA_Cup_Winners'_Cup_records_and_statistics

 

[Barra333]

The page could easily be wrong, yes.
The question was about 2 teams when neither of them was the domestic cup holder though. Surely not all of those pairs fit that description?

It wouldn't be the only incorrect wiki page out there. I can't speak for the non-English examples I gave, but the 98-99 English one was almost a direct copy of the 94-95 one.

 

[Famine]

Looks like the wiki page you are seeing is making stuff up. All it takes to get two teams from one nation in it is for the winning team to have an average year in the league/domestic cup that year.
Looks like France had two teams in 96-97 too. PSG won in 95-95 and Nimes Olympique were there too. Looks like it happened in 92-93 (Werder Bremen played Hannover 96 in the first round) and 93-94 (Parma/Torino). Actually, it looks like one nation had two teams every year from the 91-92 edition until the end, except for the year after Barcelona won.

It's not just having two teams, but two teams neither of which won their domestic cup:

A nation once had two representatives in the Cup Winners Cup tournament, neither of which was the reigning Cup holder domestically. Can anybody explain the situation?

In 1994-1995, Arsenal qualified for the Cup Winners Cup by winning the Cup Winners Cup in 1993-1994. Chelsea qualified for the Cup Winners Cup by their domestic cup (the FA Cup), but they lost 4-0 in the final to Manchester United. United took a Champions League place instead as they won their domestic league.

For your other examples (and intervening years)
1991-1992 - Manchester United (CWC champions); Tottenham Hotspur (Cup champions)
1992-1993 - Werder Bremen (CWC champions); Hannover 96 (Cup champions)
1993-1994 - Parma (CWC champions); Torino (Cup champions)
1994-1995 - Arsenal (CWC champions); Chelsea (Cup runners-up)
1995-1996 - Real Zaragoza (CWC champions); Deportivo La Coruna (Cup winners)
1996-1997 - Paris St. Germain (CWC champions); Nimes (Cup runners-up)
1997-1998 - No dual representation
1998-1999 - Chelsea (CWC champions); Newcastle United (Cup runners-up)

So only 96-97 and 98-99 are the same situation. In all the others one team was their domestic cup champions.

 

[Barra333]

I didn't look up the non-English ones because I didn't feel like hunting down the German/Italian/Spanish/French Cup results, therefore I said this:

I can't speak for the non-English examples I gave, but the 98-99 English one was almost a direct copy of the 94-95 one.

It appears I was even too lazy to look up the 91-92 FA Cup. Or I was meant to be working. Or both.

 

[Liquid]

The first foreign (neither British nor Irish) top goalscorer in the English top flight was from which country?

 

[polysmut]

Italy?

 

[Liquid]

No.