Indeed, written by a man who at that time was responsible for ordering the use of Chemical weapons in Russia and again tried to use them in Iraq in the '20s; then it is alleged, became so enamored with Islam that his family wrote to him out of fear he would convert.
So while we are throwing quote from Churchill around let not forget this one...
"I do not understand this squeamishness about the use of gas. We have definitely adopted the position at the Peace Conference of arguing in favour of the retention of gas as a permanent method of warfare. It is sheer affectation to lacerate a man with the poisonous fragment of a bursting shell and to boggle at making his eyes water by means of gas. I am strongly in favour of using poisoned gas against uncivilised tribes. The moral effect should be so good that the loss of life should be reduced to a minimum. It is not necessary to use only the most deadly gasses: gasses can be used which cause great inconvenience and would spread a lively terror and yet would leave no serious permanent effects on most of those affected."
So as long as you are uncivilized (a description that it would seem he was quite happy to apply to Russians) then the use of chemical weapons was fine. That was not just Churchill's view, but also the view laid out in the British Rules of War at the time.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Allege...al_weapons_in_Mesopotamia_in_1920#cite_note-2
What about his thoughts on Ghandi:
“ought to be lain bound hand and foot at the gates of Delhi, and then trampled on by an enormous elephant with the new Viceroy seated on its back. Gandhi-ism and everything it stands for will have to be grappled with and crushed.”
Or
“I do not agree that the dog in a manger has the final right to the manger even though he may have lain there for a very long time. I do not admit that right. I do not admit for instance, that a great wrong has been done to the Red Indians of America or the black people of Australia. I do not admit that a wrong has been done to these people by the fact that a stronger race, a higher-grade race, a more worldly wise race to put it that way, has come in and taken their place.”
Now this puts quite a different context on the use of speeches and actions from near a hundred years ago and I hope illustrates the issues with using out of context speeches from a very, very different world.
Why would it only be two the Modern Western World would have a problem with?
On what basis can you ensure that every part of comments written over 60 years ago are still valid?
Why do you presume to speak for the entire modern western world?
(and on the last part, given the leading nature of your question, that is what you are doing)