- 6,081
- Simcoeace
The point is "Duke" (I love the delicious irony of that name
), you're treating things that happened in the past as "history" - you don't want to open the question of "reparations", but what qualifies as "history"? Something that happened 100 years ago? 50 years ago? 10 years ago? Native land claims have been under dispute & in some cases, litigation, for decades. How do you decide the claims of First Nations against present-day homeowners, or golf course developers, or resource-extracting corporations, when their land was taken from them, often in direct contravention of signed treaties. Whose "rights" have precedence?
When great fortunes were amassed by families from slave-trading & those assets passed on, diversified & increased by succeeding generations, should that "wealth" be sacrosanct under "property rights", even though the wealth originates from the most egregious violations of human rights imaginable? What about the great land-owning families of Europe, who for centuries lived off the labour of the peasant classes? The Russian oligarchs whose fortunes were obtained through theft & corruption? The Colombian drug barons whose wealth was created through intimidation, violence & murder? What about defence contractors or construction company executives who make huge profits by bribes & kick-backs to corrupt politicians? What about big bank executives who make huge salaries & bonuses while knowingly running their companies into bankruptcy. What happens when that wealth passes on to the next generation? Is it automatically protected by "property rights"?
These are not academic questions. There are a million examples of wealth created by small or large violations of other people's basic rights. And they are not in the distant past - the exploitation of the weak & poor by the powerful & rich is happening on a daily basis in different countries all around the world. How does all that figure into your "mathematical" accounting of individual rights?
When great fortunes were amassed by families from slave-trading & those assets passed on, diversified & increased by succeeding generations, should that "wealth" be sacrosanct under "property rights", even though the wealth originates from the most egregious violations of human rights imaginable? What about the great land-owning families of Europe, who for centuries lived off the labour of the peasant classes? The Russian oligarchs whose fortunes were obtained through theft & corruption? The Colombian drug barons whose wealth was created through intimidation, violence & murder? What about defence contractors or construction company executives who make huge profits by bribes & kick-backs to corrupt politicians? What about big bank executives who make huge salaries & bonuses while knowingly running their companies into bankruptcy. What happens when that wealth passes on to the next generation? Is it automatically protected by "property rights"?
These are not academic questions. There are a million examples of wealth created by small or large violations of other people's basic rights. And they are not in the distant past - the exploitation of the weak & poor by the powerful & rich is happening on a daily basis in different countries all around the world. How does all that figure into your "mathematical" accounting of individual rights?